4 ms·
This would support the counterparty requiring a translation, but doesn't explain why the bureaucracy would need it.
by psychlops 3y ago
This would support the counterparty requiring a translation, but doesn't explain why the bureaucracy would need it.
- londons_explore 3y agobecause the bureaucracy also cares that the contract is valid. There are probably all kinds of tricks you could pull by being married for a bit, then declaring the marriage false all along, but not going through the official divorce process.
- psychlops 3y agoA contract is between parties. The governments role is to arbitrate in the case of disputes not to help craft the original document and ensure understanding.
- londons_explore 3y agoNot in the case of this contract, because it also enables the parties to, for example, become eligible for government incentives to be married.
- pavel_lishin 3y agoIsn't this a case of "an ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure"? Requiring both parties to prove they understand the contract is probably more cost-effective in terms of, well, cost - and time - than it is to actually go on to litigate things.
- psychlops 3y agoPerhaps, but it's simply not the way things have been done. For example, I cannot imagine a legal infrastructure that would allow people to understand Terms Of Service. And that is with everyone using their own language.