4 ms·
Since it is in the context of a panegyric, it should not be taken as a literal theological statement, but as poetic language. However, I would agree that it is
by Archelaos 3y ago
Since it is in the context of a panegyric, it should not be taken as a literal theological statement, but as poetic language. However, I would agree that it is some reverberation of the emperor cult, even 68 years after the Edict of Thessalonica.
Note also that Roman emperors could be given the epithet "Divus" ("the divine") after their death well into the Christian era. The German Wikipedia has a list: https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divus https://de.wikipedia.org/wiki/Divus Although Theodisus II is not included, there appear two East-Roman emperors after him: Leo (†474) and Anastasius (†518).
- LAC-Tech 3y agoIf it was purely poetic language, why the Roman objection to Atilla being compared to a God? Feel like there has to be more to it than that.
- Archelaos 3y agoThe "dispute" was about status, not a simple ontological fact. The Roman did not grant Attila the same rank as Theodosius. Calling him "God" means that Theodosius has the highest rank possible, but Attila not.