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Such a person would be still paying that tax indirectly as it would be funded by any payments for the "land they use" e.g. housing rent would be directly influe
by PeterisP 3y ago
Such a person would be still paying that tax indirectly as it would be funded by any payments for the "land they use" e.g. housing rent would be directly influenced by that land tax, just as the prices of services (rent can often be ~30% of the base costs of urban service providers).
- graemep 3y agoNot if tax is on land value (excluding value of buildings) The supply curve is usually vertical so price is fixed by demand. I do not know whether this system exists anywhere, but it is possible.
- randomcarbloke 3y agothat seems even more perverse than the potential productivity land-use tax that georgists usually suggest.