2 ms·
It's the "after all" that implies you thought you were responding to one person the whole time, which is why I corrected that.
by Izkata 3y ago
It's the "after all" that implies you thought you were responding to one person the whole time, which is why I corrected that.
- randomdata 3y agoYou can rephrase it that way, sure: "After all this (being explicitly told that there is an inverse case), you still weren't capable of understanding what was written." The first half of your comment does not logically precede that, though. There is no such implication.