3 ms·

no, the addition of 'to me' makes it objectively clearer. unless you're intentionally being obtuse, right?

• colpabar 3y ago
  Sorry I'm confused - clearer to you?
  • nickburns 3y ago
    clearly.
    • colpabar 3y ago
      Thanks for clarifying - I usually assume that when someone makes a subjective claim about how something "seems" that the "to me" part is implied, obvious even, but I forgot where I was. By the way, do you have a peer reviewed study to back up your claims?