So Im guessing non western music still still satisfies other mathematical relationships? I dont think it's correct to say the mathematical explanation is incorr

So Im guessing non western music still still satisfies other mathematical relationships? I dont think it's correct to say the mathematical explanation is incorrect or even limited. Even considering deviations/slight variations from ratios: 1. You have to consider that these are deviations from the mathematical ratios. 2. The variations themselves can follow ratios. After all, not all deviations or variations are equally interesting. For example if you were to play 1xxx2xxx3xxx4 you can vary the next verse 1xx2xxxx3xxx4 and the next 1xxxx2xx3xxx4 Here the second note is oscillating one before the "ideal" ratio and one after.