4 ms·
It's closer to 63% (binomial distribution of 1% chance with 100 trials, P(X>=1) is 63.4%).
by evrimoztamur 3y ago
It's closer to 63% (binomial distribution of 1% chance with 100 trials, P(X>=1) is 63.4%).
- mahogany 3y agoFun fact, this converges quickly to 1-1/e ~ 0.632. If you had a 1 in a million chance of winning something and you tried a million times, the chance of winning once is about 63.2%, not much different from when n=100.