> I think the difference would look much differently if you'd account for that fact According to this[1] the sex ratio participation in the labor force is comp

> I think the difference would look much differently if you'd account for that fact According to this[1] the sex ratio participation in the labor force is comparable between countries, as in only 5% variance in most cases, of the difference between men/women labor force participation. That was a interesting thesis, but data doesn't seems to favor it. Sex alone isn't able to explain the that Germany seems to have higher/same output than other countries despite working less hours. Quality of working hours doesn't seem to feature a imbalance in the labor pool to explain the difference. [1]: https://stats.oecd.org/Index.aspx?DataSetCode=LFS_SEXAGE_I_R# https://stats.oecd.org/Index.aspx?DataSetCode=LFS_SEXAGE_I_R...