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I think these numbers aren't comparable because they're normalized by employees, not employable population. If you compare a traditional mom-stays-at-home fami
by choeger 3y ago
I think these numbers aren't comparable because they're normalized by employees, not employable population.
If you compare a traditional mom-stays-at-home family with a more typical German family they both might work 50-60 hours a week. The difference is that in the former case it's a male burning the midnight fuel in an office or working a side job and in the latter it's two parents working a 20-40 or 30-30 split or so.
So I think the difference would look much differently if you'd account for that fact.
- tgkudelski 3y agoI think you're absolutely right. See e.g. Japan's position. No way that is accurate for the average worker.
- ktosobcy 3y agoProbably also missing "starting point" - if you are already rich you don't have to work as hard to stay ahead...
- amadeuspagel 3y agoThere are plenty of traditional mom-stays-at-home families in germany, compared to, say, france. What country are you comparing germany to?
- braiamp 3y ago> I think the difference would look much differently if you'd account for that fact According to this[1] the sex ratio participation in the labor force is comparable between countries, as in only 5% variance in most cases, of the difference between men/women labor force participation. That was a interesting thesis, but data doesn't seems to favor it. Sex alone isn't able to explain the that Germany seems to have higher/same output than other countries despite working less hours. Quality of working hours doesn't seem to feature a imbalance in the labor pool to explain the difference. [1]: https://stats.oecd.org/Index.aspx?DataSetCode=LFS_SEXAGE_I_R# https://stats.oecd.org/Index.aspx?DataSetCode=LFS_SEXAGE_I_R...