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Relating t-statistics and the relative width of confidence intervals
- nerdponx 3y agoGreat little demo. > It is only when the statistical evidence against the null is overwhelming — “six sigma” overwhelming or more —that you’re also getting tight confidence intervals in relative terms. Among other things, this highlights that if you need to use your estimates quantitatively, rather than just to reject the null, default power analysis is going to be overoptimistic. This I think will be a real head-scratcher for a lot of students, who are often taught to construct confidence intervals by no method apart from "inverting" an hypothesis test. It illustrates one of the many challenges (and dangers!) of teaching statistics.
- FabHK 3y agoI was a bit confused by the article initially: > Perhaps most simply, with a t-statistic of 2, your 95% confidence intervals will nearly touch 0. Your 95% CI will include 0, unless you have more than 50 or so data points, in which case there's no point in using Student's t-distribution, might as well use the Gaussian, which the author seems to assume, and which I thought gave rise to the z-score (in my mind, t-statistic = t-distribution, z-score = normal distribution). But then looking things up, it turns out that difference is that the z-score is computed with population mean and sd, while the t-statistic is computed with sample mean and sd. So, yeah, practically you'll use the t-statistic (and it will be t-distributed if the population is normally distributed), unless you already know population mean and sd, in which case you can compute the z-score (which will approach the normal distribution by CLT under certain conditions with large enough samples, but is otherwise not predicated on normality in any way). Then all the author was pointing out is that if we take a +/- 2 standard error CI, then if your statistic is 2, the CI goes from 0 to 4, giving rise to a 100% "half-width" of the CI, while if your statistic is 4, say, the CI goes from 2 to 6, giving rise to just 50% half-width.
- nerdponx 3y agoThe T distribution arises as the ratio between a Gaussian r.v. and the square root of a Chi-square r.v.: X ~ Gaussian(m, v) S ~ ChiSquare(n) T = X / sqrt(S / n) The sampling distribution of the sample mean is Gaussian whenever the data is Gaussian, or whenever the CLT applies. The sampling distribution of the sample variance is Chi-square whenever the data is Gaussian. But the CLT does not have any effect here. In general there isn't much else that we can say about the sampling distribution of the sample variance. Thus if we want to compute a "sample Z statistic" using those estimated quantities, and we know the data is Gaussian, then we know the sampling distribution of that "sample Z statistic". It's the T distribution. But the assumption of underlying Gaussian data is important here. The CLT doesn't help us derive a T distribution. But it is true that our "sample Z statistic" is asymptotically Gaussian, in which case the T distribution itself is approximately Gaussian. [0] So a "T test" (meaning "test of a difference in means"), using the actual T distribution as the null distribution of the test statistic, is basically never valid on non-Gaussian data. But it's valid (asymptotically) using the Gaussian distribution as the null distribution of the test statistic. That's a lot of reasoning to say: `avg(y) / sqrt(var(y) / n)` could be either T or Gaussian, depending on the assumptions and context. But I would push back on conflating that with `avg(y) / sqrt(σ^2 / n)`. Even if they have the same distribution, they are not the same thing. [0]: If you want a good writeup, see https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/253318/36229 https://stats.stackexchange.com/a/253318/36229. Or look into a good statistics textbook.
- mjburgess 3y agoOne important caveat to all these methods is that the central limit theorem must hold for the sample means and this is an empirical condition, not something you can know statistically. Another important caveat: many things we want to measure are not well-distributed to allow the CLT to hold. If it doesnt, the bulk of statistical methods don't work and the results are bunk. Many quantities follow power-law distributions which would require trillions+ data points for the CLT to do its magic, ie., for the sample means of set A to be statistically-significantly different from set B would require 10^BIG if the property measured in A/B is powerlaw distributed. Now, even worse: many areas of "science" study phenomena which is almost certainly power-law distributed, and use these methods to do so.
- ASpring 3y agoI'm not sure I'm fully understanding your point. Is it that constructing confidence intervals using t-statistics is inappropriate for a lot of real data that isn't distributed somewhat normally?
- nerdponx 3y agoIt's their point, and it's a good one, but I think they're somewhat overstating how common power-law data is; it probably varies a lot by field of study. And at least the logarithm of a power-law variable can help bring it back closer to the world of sanity. Plus, there are plenty of fields where nonparametric tests of medians are accepted standard practice.
- mjburgess 3y agoYou can turn most issues into powerlaws by recursing a reasonable risk distribution over it. So suppose we ask, what is our confidence in X? (rather than X); and then, what is our confidence in the model by which we give confidences in X (ie., the model risk); and so on... In practice, what we want to model is the appropriate confidence, not an actual prediction (bunk). So we are very often screwed. Statistics is an illusion.
- kgwgk 3y ago