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Even though statistics might mean someone is more likely to commit a crime, that does not necessarily mean that they did commit a crime (or if they committed th
by zzo38computer 3y ago
Even though statistics might mean someone is more likely to commit a crime, that does not necessarily mean that they did commit a crime (or if they committed the specific crime being asked about). Statistics do not imply that you committed (or did not commit) a crime; it must be investigated like any other crime.
Also, just because they commited the crime as someone else did does not mean that a harsher penalty for the same crime; that does not logically follow.
At most, such statistics may decide who the police might investigate if they do not have other (better) data to make a decision, or in what places the police might check for crimes (although both of these things should be done without violating the people's freedom and privacy, if you can; it is not an excuse to prevent the ordinary people's freedom).
(Also, I am against the death penalty, although that is a different issue than the above discussion. Still, it is related to being mistaken about the crime; that is why I am against the death penalty, but such errors are possible regardless of whether or not it is biased in the ways mentioned above.)
- AnthonyMouse 3y ago> Even though statistics might mean someone is more likely to commit a crime, that does not necessarily mean that they did commit a crime (or if they committed the specific crime being asked about). Which is why you're not supposed to consider these things when serving on a jury, and the court will exclude it from being presented to the jury to the extent feasible. But if you do the opposite with some LLM, purposely feed it the exact information you know it can use to make a particular inference, why is anybody surprised what happens after that?