What are you even responding to? The claim is A => B, A is true, therefore B. Much Poorer => Conquered. Incans were poor, therefore Incans conquered. I dispute

What are you even responding to? The claim is A => B, A is true, therefore B. Much Poorer => Conquered. Incans were poor, therefore Incans conquered. I dispute A, Incans were poor. By almost any observable metric such as quality of life, size of empire, scale of construction, population and thus food production, intricacy of ornaments it is unclear that the Incans were much poorer than the Spanish. In fact, by many of those metrics the Incans were comparable or even wealthier than the Spanish. If you do not think that the Incans were materially poorer than the Spanish, the we already agree. If you disagree and actually want to respond to the arguments presented, please present a argument supported by evidence that does not use circular reasoning to demonstrate that the Incans were much poorer than the Spanish. As an example of circular reasoning: "The Spanish had more advanced weapons demonstrating they invested more economic surplus into weapon technology which proves they had more societal economic surplus." Not to say that superior weapon technology could not be a reason for the successful Spanish conquest, but it is not evidence of a significant "wealth gap" unless you subscribe to the ludicrous notion that all technology gaps are by definition wealth gaps. Even if we did assume that ridiculous notion is true, we have no way of comparing the tech trees of two civilizations to compare their "tech wealth" so it still just ends up being circular reasoning.