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Python does follow the convention, but what I am wondering now is why did FORTRAN break it ?
by BlueTemplar 3y ago
Python does follow the convention, but what I am wondering now is why did FORTRAN break it ?
- asplake 3y agoFortran is old – 1958 onwards. It has precedence here, though at what point it separated the two behaviours into mod and modulo functions I don’t know. Edit: From what I can tell, standardised in Fortran 90, presumably older than that.
- BlueTemplar 3y agoMy point is that Fortran doesn't have precedence on math, see this comment by Austin Feller : http://python-history.blogspot.com/2010/08/why-pythons-integer-division-floors.html?showComment=1404050838672#c3832102777815381946 http://python-history.blogspot.com/2010/08/why-pythons-integ...
- wombatpm 3y agoMaybe because FORTRAN arrays index from 1 by default?