3 ms·
In most European law, there is no such distinction.
by rrr_oh_man 3y ago
In most European law, there is no such distinction.
- lupire 3y agoUS law too.
- ysofunny 3y agobut there's nonetheless a difference surely not in principle because anything that's been written may be read out and spoken (and viceversa, anything is potentially transcribe-able) nonetheless, when push comes to shove there's a real difference: written stuff (text) is readily usable as evidence but things only ever spoken are not.
- rrr_oh_man 3y agoSpoken as in hearsay? Probably not. Spoken with witnesses? Most definitely.