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No, it shows that `Y g = g (Y g)`, so both ways.
by toxik 3y ago
No, it shows that `Y g = g (Y g)`, so both ways.
- ted_dunning 3y agoTo clarify for people who are sloppy readers like me, the important difference here is the difference between `=` and `=>`, not the difference in notation between `Y(g)` and `Y g`.