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A graph from Statista [1] indicates the opposite: the fraction of US housing units occupied by the owner in 2022 was almost double what it was in 1975. Another
by pdonis 3y ago
A graph from Statista [1] indicates the opposite: the fraction of US housing units occupied by the owner in 2022 was almost double what it was in 1975.
Another pertinent question would be the overall supply of housing: one obvious factor that could help explain the graph I just described is that the overall supply of US housing has gone down, meaning that fewer owners are in a position to rent out property at all. Hence the supply of rental properties is significantly decreased, which will drive up the price.
[1] https://www.statista.com/statistics/187576/housing-units-occupied-by-owner-in-the-us-since-1975/ https://www.statista.com/statistics/187576/housing-units-occ...
- tmnvix 3y agoIf I'm not mistaken, the graph you have referred to shows the total number of owner occupied homes - not the proportion. Edit: I'm also not sure that their definition of owner occupied excludes second homes. From the linked page: > Owner occupied housing is where the person who owns a property – either outright or through a mortgage – also resides in the property. Excluded are therefore rental properties, employer-provided housing and social housing.
- pdonis 3y ago> the graph you have referred to shows the total number of owner occupied homes - not the proportion Hm, yes, you're right, I was misreading the y axis. > I'm also not sure that their definition of owner occupied excludes second homes. "Resides" generally means principal residence, which excludes second homes. However, it would be nice if the site would clarify that.