5 ms·

Because it hurts EU customers by not applying the rules worldwide.

by joshlk 3y ago

johannes1234321 3y ago
EU has no legislative powers outside EU.
- dylan604 3y ago
  Oh, but you know they would love that. I kind of see the EU legislation similar to California. After CA passes laws, eventually, the other states do as well. I'd imagine that the EU hopes that their legislation will influence others at some point too.
  - lotsofpulp 3y ago
    What CA laws do the other (presumably most or all) states pass? Some CA laws only have an effect outside California because the state has so many people (with money). So if you are designing a physical product to sell, it is cheaper to just make one that complies with California.
    - dylan604 3y ago
      Exactly, with automobiles being the most obvious. At one point, if you bought a car outside of CA, you might have needed to make physical modifications to it before it could be registered in CA with the catalytic converter being an example that jumps to mind. Eventually, all of the other states required them as well, and the auto manufacturers just made all of there cars compatible with the CA reqs anyways. There are non-physical product laws as well. CA was a leader on medicinal cannabis, minimum wage, etc
- sgift 3y ago
  Doesn't need to: You want into the EU market? EU demands this for the whole world. The EU can set any requirement it wants for market access. Such is the power of governments. And since someone will state that then other countries can do the same: Correct. And then companies will have to decide if the market in question is big enough to play by those rules.
  - shafyy 3y ago
    No, the EU cannot dictate what companies do in other countries. They can only require them to meet standards for services and products that are sold in the EU (or maybe if the companies are headquartered in EU).
    - zilti 3y ago
      You're being really obtuse, aren't you. The EU can say "If you do not implement that functionality on all iPhones world-wide, then you are not allowed to sell any iPhone at all in the EU".
      - shafyy 3y ago
        I mean, of course they can say it, but it would lead to a legal and trade agreement shit show.
    - Moldoteck 3y ago
      Didn't eu/uk do exactly this by blocking an acquisition of an us company by another us company and the company listened?
      - shafyy 3y ago
        Which one?
        jxdxbx 3y ago
        Adobe / Figma, and Amazon / iRobot. And to the point of the discussion, there are no "limits" to what jurisdiction governments have. Governments--the United States especially but many others--does it all the time, especially as concerns financial matters. Many countries have declared that they have jurisdiction over crimes against humanity committed any time, anywhere, by anyone. China has penalized American companies for activities involving Americans in America. However the EU probably has self-imposed limits (or imposed by the member states) and as a practical matter only large or powerful states can get away with it.
- toyg 3y ago
  Nor do the US, but most legal impositions (no accounts under 13 years, dmca, etc) get replicated around the world because services want to work in the US market. (Also, guess what happens if you copy Hollywood movies a bit too much? Jurisdiction goes out of the window... https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kim_Dotcom#High_Court https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kim_Dotcom#High_Court )
dylan604 3y ago
How?
mc32 3y ago
What happens when markets have opposing requirements? Ex: China, Russia, KSA, EU? No, they cannot dictate rules world-wide. Each market can dictate market requirements but they can't have them imposed in other jurisdictions they have no control over.
- sgift 3y ago
  Then the company in question will have to decide which market is more important to them and follow the rules of that market, while not being present on the other. Others have already noted the risk of a trade war following from that, but that doesn't preclude the EU/US/China/.. from still doing it. It's just a matter of how important they think the rule is.
ecf 3y ago
> Because it hurts EU customers by not applying the rules worldwide. It’s an entirely expected outcome for wanting to enact one-of-a-kind laws that force a foreign company into doing something they’ve obviously wanted to avoid.

Because it hurts EU customers by not applying the rules worldwide.

by joshlk 3y ago

Because it hurts EU customers by not applying the rules worldwide.

johannes1234321 3y ago

EU has no legislative powers outside EU.

dylan604 3y ago
Oh, but you know they would love that. I kind of see the EU legislation similar to California. After CA passes laws, eventually, the other states do as well. I'd imagine that the EU hopes that their legislation will influence others at some point too.
- lotsofpulp 3y ago
  What CA laws do the other (presumably most or all) states pass? Some CA laws only have an effect outside California because the state has so many people (with money). So if you are designing a physical product to sell, it is cheaper to just make one that complies with California.
  - dylan604 3y ago
    Exactly, with automobiles being the most obvious. At one point, if you bought a car outside of CA, you might have needed to make physical modifications to it before it could be registered in CA with the catalytic converter being an example that jumps to mind. Eventually, all of the other states required them as well, and the auto manufacturers just made all of there cars compatible with the CA reqs anyways. There are non-physical product laws as well. CA was a leader on medicinal cannabis, minimum wage, etc
sgift 3y ago
Doesn't need to: You want into the EU market? EU demands this for the whole world. The EU can set any requirement it wants for market access. Such is the power of governments. And since someone will state that then other countries can do the same: Correct. And then companies will have to decide if the market in question is big enough to play by those rules.
- shafyy 3y ago
  No, the EU cannot dictate what companies do in other countries. They can only require them to meet standards for services and products that are sold in the EU (or maybe if the companies are headquartered in EU).
  - zilti 3y ago
    You're being really obtuse, aren't you. The EU can say "If you do not implement that functionality on all iPhones world-wide, then you are not allowed to sell any iPhone at all in the EU".
    - shafyy 3y ago
      I mean, of course they can say it, but it would lead to a legal and trade agreement shit show.
  - Moldoteck 3y ago
    Didn't eu/uk do exactly this by blocking an acquisition of an us company by another us company and the company listened?
    - shafyy 3y ago
      Which one?
      - jxdxbx 3y ago
        Adobe / Figma, and Amazon / iRobot. And to the point of the discussion, there are no "limits" to what jurisdiction governments have. Governments--the United States especially but many others--does it all the time, especially as concerns financial matters. Many countries have declared that they have jurisdiction over crimes against humanity committed any time, anywhere, by anyone. China has penalized American companies for activities involving Americans in America. However the EU probably has self-imposed limits (or imposed by the member states) and as a practical matter only large or powerful states can get away with it.
toyg 3y ago
Nor do the US, but most legal impositions (no accounts under 13 years, dmca, etc) get replicated around the world because services want to work in the US market. (Also, guess what happens if you copy Hollywood movies a bit too much? Jurisdiction goes out of the window... https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kim_Dotcom#High_Court https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Kim_Dotcom#High_Court )

dylan604 3y ago

How?

mc32 3y ago

What happens when markets have opposing requirements? Ex: China, Russia, KSA, EU? No, they cannot dictate rules world-wide. Each market can dictate market requirements but they can't have them imposed in other jurisdictions they have no control over.

sgift 3y ago
Then the company in question will have to decide which market is more important to them and follow the rules of that market, while not being present on the other. Others have already noted the risk of a trade war following from that, but that doesn't preclude the EU/US/China/.. from still doing it. It's just a matter of how important they think the rule is.

ecf 3y ago

> Because it hurts EU customers by not applying the rules worldwide. It’s an entirely expected outcome for wanting to enact one-of-a-kind laws that force a foreign company into doing something they’ve obviously wanted to avoid.