How is r=0.15 to r=0.3 a strong correlation? Especially when the correlation is very strong in one direction (low IQ, low income) and weaker in the other. The

How is r=0.15 to r=0.3 a strong correlation? Especially when the correlation is very strong in one direction (low IQ, low income) and weaker in the other. The educational achievement correlation has to be thrown aside completely because the SAT and GRE were largely an IQ test until the late 80s. I'm not saying that IQ tests are completely useless. But clearly, the correlation isn't strong, and the whole hypothesis that it measures a g factor is not borne out by strong evidence.