4 ms·

> Birth control (of all types) is responsible the bulk of the reduction in birth rate. Birth control is a tool, which requires conscious thought. If you look a

> Birth control (of all types) is responsible the bulk of the reduction in birth rate. Birth control is a tool, which requires conscious thought. If you look at the UK: https://www.statista.com/statistics/281981/live-births-in-the-united-kingdom-uk/ https://www.statista.com/statistics/281981/live-births-in-th... You can clearly see two peaks in the last 40 years. Given that the last peak comes after liberalisation of the morning after pill, it breaks the correlation between availability and birth rate. > end the lives of 73 million unborn per year I'm assuming your joining 48hr contraceptive with <28 week abortion, otherwise those numbers would mean that (I'm assuming the USA) every woman in the USA alive would be having an abortion at least every two years. Given the number of clinics capable of carrying that out, I find that number difficult to prove.

argiopetech 3y ago
Two peaks on a downward trend are still a downward trend. That trend is more obvious if you look at population-corrected rates. https://www.statista.com/statistics/281416/birth-rate-in-the-united-kingdom-uk/ https://www.statista.com/statistics/281416/birth-rate-in-the... 73mil/yr is the world number. https://www.guttmacher.org/fact-sheet/induced-abortion-worldwide https://www.guttmacher.org/fact-sheet/induced-abortion-world...
- Jochim 3y ago
  The peak in the 60s occurs a while after the pill was made available in the UK and begins to trend downward before it was made more easily accessible. Contraceptive measures are not an explanation in and of themselves. They provide no information regarding the "why". I'd argue that the reduction is more specifically reflective of people's willingness to have children in times of economic hardship or declining living conditions; perceived or otherwise.
  - argiopetech 3y ago
    The pill was not readily available (absent a reason pregnancy may be harmful to the mother) in the UK until 1967, and not to unmarried women until 1974.

argiopetech 3y ago

Two peaks on a downward trend are still a downward trend. That trend is more obvious if you look at population-corrected rates. https://www.statista.com/statistics/281416/birth-rate-in-the-united-kingdom-uk/ https://www.statista.com/statistics/281416/birth-rate-in-the... 73mil/yr is the world number. https://www.guttmacher.org/fact-sheet/induced-abortion-worldwide https://www.guttmacher.org/fact-sheet/induced-abortion-world...

Jochim 3y ago
The peak in the 60s occurs a while after the pill was made available in the UK and begins to trend downward before it was made more easily accessible. Contraceptive measures are not an explanation in and of themselves. They provide no information regarding the "why". I'd argue that the reduction is more specifically reflective of people's willingness to have children in times of economic hardship or declining living conditions; perceived or otherwise.
- argiopetech 3y ago
  The pill was not readily available (absent a reason pregnancy may be harmful to the mother) in the UK until 1967, and not to unmarried women until 1974.