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It’s a good question. There aren’t many circumstances that this would happen, however when it does there are still no fees on the account (at least the ‘Cash Ac
by jpsouth 3y ago
It’s a good question. There aren’t many circumstances that this would happen, however when it does there are still no fees on the account (at least the ‘Cash Account’ at the bank I worked at) - it would go into a negative balance, not incur any fees and when the next credits came in, they’d get eaten by the negative balance.
This usually meant the customer would need to call up a service centre, who would arrange a ‘planned overdraft’ of sorts, still with zero fees, but it would allow them access to a portion of their funds and we’d do the same again the following week and so on.
Very inconvenient for all involved, these people are often completely financially illiterate (and frequently just illiterate) and have zero clue how to manage their bank account. I tried to educate them consistently, but week in week out I had the same conversations with the same people when they didn’t understand how they had no funds available to them, even though they’d been ‘paid’ that day.
- paulmd 3y agohonestly thanks for responding in good faith/spirits, probably was a bit overly snarky I appreciate the thought put into the answer, and I do grasp that the point is that the EU system has converged on much faster resolution times than the US and different social systems based on that etc. There just always are tons and tons of weird edge-cases (what if you get a court-ordered transaction reversal or order to the bank somehow etc) that lead to the same "you're overdrafted, and you have to pay up and then pay a fee..."