I would point to the government report that the Swedish government did, or the study from Turell (2000) or Messinger (2001), or Kelley et al. (2012). I also rec

I would point to the government report that the Swedish government did, or the study from Turell (2000) or Messinger (2001), or Kelley et al. (2012). I also recall hearing it from a professor. There are many theories but one of the more reasonable one (in my view) is the simple one. Humans are humans and culture is usually a better explanation than biology. It also fits the challenge hypothesis of the relation between androgens and aggressiveness, which is that androgens function actually has nothing to do with aggressiveness but everything to do with social status and the amount of behavior towards defending against perceived social status threats. Only in a culture where social status is defended through the use of aggression is there a relation between androgens and aggression (An experiment using a setup where social status was defended through non-aggression showed a link with increased androgens and a reduction in aggression, which would indicate this theory to be true). There are also multiple studies looking at self-reported amount of violence in relationships, which tend to show that while the rate of violence by women and men is fairly similar, what is different is how that violence get applied. This would also support the theory that the difference sits in how men apply violence against women, women applies violence against men, men against men and women against women. Same rate of violence, but not the exact same behavior when violence is being applied.