3 ms·
I noticed there has been (relatively recently) a overcorrection of "John and me" to "John and I", independently of whether the "I" is nominative or accusative.
by ithkuil 3y ago
I noticed there has been (relatively recently) a overcorrection of "John and me" to "John and I", independently of whether the "I" is nominative or accusative.
- Who saw it?
- John and I! (correct)
- With whom did Mary go?
- With John and I! (what? why?)
If the speaker doesn't really understand deeply what is the reason why you'd use "I" or "me", then all the rules around that sound arbitrary and they will make an effort to "clean up" their speech in order to not be labeled ignorant, but they will make another mistake that only truly annoying nitpickers like me will complain about, and that won't make any difference :-)
- CoastalCoder 3y ago> - With whom did Mary go? - With John and I! (what? why?) Or, equally painfully, "With John and myself!" (What? The speaker was also the subject of the sentence?) THB I'm pulled between two incompatible positions: (1) Nobody has a right to define "proper" English language. The language's grammar is literally however a plurality of people use it. vs. (2) There is a "proper" English; it's what we were taught in elementary school in the 1970's. Failing to adhere to those grammar rules (e.g., when to use "myself" or "whom") is objectively incorrect. This article [0] seems to capture my thoughts nicely. [0] https://thewritepractice.com/cs-lewis-language/ https://thewritepractice.com/cs-lewis-language/
- ithkuil 3y agoI don't find that use of "myself" painful, provided it's done in the right context / dialect (I heard that used at lot in Ireland)