still reading the actual report, but this is always an interesting topic whenever this story is being written about: > Google says the data collection was lega

still reading the actual report, but this is always an interesting topic whenever this story is being written about: > Google says the data collection was legal. But when regulators asked to see what had been collected, Google refused, the report says, saying it might break privacy and wiretapping laws if it shared the material. put another way, Google refused to provide information it had collected about people without a warrant, which is probably the correct behavior. On the other hand, how can you have oversight without seeing what was actually collected? If google is operating in Germany (I assume so), they'd have to obey a court order, so did german authorities see the actual data? Maybe the FCC didn't have that power, but it would be nice if the nytimes at least provided some depth there. Otherwise they're giving the equivalent of "'I didn't murder him' is exactly what a murderer would say!" edit: to answer my own question, the report mentions that the FCC didn't pursue access to the data after the refusal because bodies in France, Canada, and the Netherlands did view it and issued reports.