6 ms·
I'm assuming it's tautological due to the top 1% owning most of the economy. I mention percentages because on an absolute scale, the ultra wealthy aren't impac
by mensetmanusman 3y ago
I'm assuming it's tautological due to the top 1% owning most of the economy.
I mention percentages because on an absolute scale, the ultra wealthy aren't impacted by percentage changes in wealth, the poor are (because they have no buffer).