It’s puzzling to me why some people take it as a given that if a person is legally able to do A, then software should too. The capabilities of software are so d

It’s puzzling to me why some people take it as a given that if a person is legally able to do A, then software should too. The capabilities of software are so different than that of a person that it seems reasonable to consider how the laws apply to software separately. A group of individuals could not absorb the NYT’s content nearly as fast as software can. Like, can we confidently say that laws around copyright and licensing would not have been written any differently had LLMs existed at the time? It’s not obvious to me that the answer is yes.