3 ms·

Because there is no _intent_ to slander.

beeboobaa 3y ago
Sure there is, they're a bigcorp and did what they did. Don't let companies get away with crimes you and I wouldn't just because they're too disorganized.
dns_snek 3y ago
So if I send an email to your boss saying "occamrazor is a <blank> molester", I'm fine as long as I say that I didn't mean to cause any harm?
- miloignis 3y ago
  You're fine if you honestly thought it was true, yes.
  - autoexec 3y ago
    am I also fine if I negligently write and keep using an algorithm to detect and report people for being molesters when I know full well that it's actually shitty and I regularly receive reports that it's resulting in false positives? That's facebook's situation. Even though they've got hundreds of billions and could easily afford to, they don't want to pay humans to verify these things and they know that innocent people are being hurt by their terrible lazy code, they just don't care.
    - nerdponx 3y ago
      I suppose you'd have to prove that they knew the algorithm was bad. They'll just say "we're trying our best, but it's hard". And the truth is that it probably is hard. The question is whether knowing that your algorithm is imperfect is equivalent to intent to harm.
  - upget_tiding 3y ago
    You are describing the actual malice standard which only applies to public figures. Also, an accusation of that type would be considered "defamation per se" which would mean that there is not a need to prove damages. According to my layman understanding. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Actual_malice https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Actual_malice https://www.findlaw.com/injury/torts-and-personal-injuries/what-is-defamation-per-se-.html https://www.findlaw.com/injury/torts-and-personal-injuries/w...
    - 1letterunixname 3y ago
      HN needs a button to "ask a professional" to resolve a question in a thread, be it a doctor, lawyer, accountant, physicist, or electrical engineer. ;]
    - miloignis 3y ago
      Ah, that's a good point, thank you!
switch007 3y ago
Depends on the legal jurisdiction. No intent required in England for example, just proof of serious harm

Sure there is, they're a bigcorp and did what they did. Don't let companies get away with crimes you and I wouldn't just because they're too disorganized.

dns_snek 3y ago

So if I send an email to your boss saying "occamrazor is a <blank> molester", I'm fine as long as I say that I didn't mean to cause any harm?

miloignis 3y ago
You're fine if you honestly thought it was true, yes.
- autoexec 3y ago
  am I also fine if I negligently write and keep using an algorithm to detect and report people for being molesters when I know full well that it's actually shitty and I regularly receive reports that it's resulting in false positives? That's facebook's situation. Even though they've got hundreds of billions and could easily afford to, they don't want to pay humans to verify these things and they know that innocent people are being hurt by their terrible lazy code, they just don't care.
  - nerdponx 3y ago
    I suppose you'd have to prove that they knew the algorithm was bad. They'll just say "we're trying our best, but it's hard". And the truth is that it probably is hard. The question is whether knowing that your algorithm is imperfect is equivalent to intent to harm.
- upget_tiding 3y ago
  You are describing the actual malice standard which only applies to public figures. Also, an accusation of that type would be considered "defamation per se" which would mean that there is not a need to prove damages. According to my layman understanding. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Actual_malice https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Actual_malice https://www.findlaw.com/injury/torts-and-personal-injuries/what-is-defamation-per-se-.html https://www.findlaw.com/injury/torts-and-personal-injuries/w...
  - 1letterunixname 3y ago
    HN needs a button to "ask a professional" to resolve a question in a thread, be it a doctor, lawyer, accountant, physicist, or electrical engineer. ;]
  - miloignis 3y ago
    Ah, that's a good point, thank you!

switch007 3y ago

Depends on the legal jurisdiction. No intent required in England for example, just proof of serious harm