So there are two explanations 1) Israel asked civilians to move south to be relatively safer, some important Hamas officers moved south along with them, and Is

So there are two explanations 1) Israel asked civilians to move south to be relatively safer, some important Hamas officers moved south along with them, and Israel targeted them. 2) The strikes weren't about Hamas officers, but just a deliberate killing of civilians. If you're saying this is evidence of genocide, that means you're discounting (1) and assuming (2)? Why? I'm not condoning (1), which suggests IDF is prioritizing its concerns (expediency etc) over civilian lives, but that clearly doesn't meet the definition of genocide.