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Yes, but no more than a non-Bayesian’s. The difference is mainly that the Bayesian approach makes more of its assumptions explicit.
by epgui 3y ago
Yes, but no more than a non-Bayesian’s. The difference is mainly that the Bayesian approach makes more of its assumptions explicit.
- jvans 3y agoThis. Bayesian assumptions are explicit and you'll be forced to defend your priors. Frequentist assumptions like homoscedasticity are implicit and rarely challenged. I wouldn't be surprised if many people using frequentist methods have no idea what assumptions need to be true for the methods to be valid. In a Bayesian framework you can't avoid the assumptions