> Maybe this is a mistranslation; but when Ezekiel 16:50 uses a word from Greek that means "sexually disgusting," Leviticus 18:22 remarks that it is an "abomina

> Maybe this is a mistranslation; but when Ezekiel 16:50 uses a word from Greek that means "sexually disgusting," Leviticus 18:22 remarks that it is an "abomination," and Jude 1:7 states that "Sodom and Gomorrah and the surrounding towns gave themselves up to sexual immorality and perversion," it's very hard to claim that all the verses were mistranslations. The passage from Leviticus seems explicitly about male homosexuality, but Ezekiel seems more vague in this translation: > 49 “‘Now this was the sin of your sister Sodom: She and her daughters were arrogant, overfed and unconcerned; they did not help the poor and needy. 50 They were haughty and did detestable things before me. Therefore I did away with them as you have seen. And Jude also doesn't seem to explicitly mention homosexuality, but I guess it's calling back to another piece of writing that the reader is expected to be familiar with.