3 ms·
In the United States, that only applies to specifically discriminating against protected classes. It would not apply to my hypothetical, except that "right-to-w
by BobaFloutist 3y ago
In the United States, that only applies to specifically discriminating against protected classes. It would not apply to my hypothetical, except that "right-to-work" laws in many states specifically prohibit unions and corporations from making exclusive hiring agreements.
- pseudalopex 3y agoFederal law and jurisprudence prohibit unions and corporations from making exclusive hiring agreements. So called right to work laws allow non members to opt out of paying for the representation unions are compelled to provide.