> That was written around 60 years ago. Anyone here happen to know if it still holds? Not really the same question but I attended a talk by some top tribologis

> That was written around 60 years ago. Anyone here happen to know if it still holds? Not really the same question but I attended a talk by some top tribologists at my uni and I asked them if friction really was independent of contact area (as F=μN would suggest), their reply was that it roughly was, but not really if you were very precise or varying parameters. It would appear that the equation is a good approximation, like classical Newtonian physics.