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> In both cases there is an uncompensated expense by the employee. In both cases the employee factors in those expenses into the active rate they charge. If pa
by randomdata 3y ago
> In both cases there is an uncompensated expense by the employee.
In both cases the employee factors in those expenses into the active rate they charge. If pay generally remained the same when moving to the home (and in cases when returning to the office), it seems the cost is generally deemed equivalent.
- danaris 3y agoThis is yet another example of the fallacy of assuming that The Almighty Market will perfectly set all costs. Most employees do not have the luxury and privilege to be able to demand a raise any time they feel like they deserve one, and actually get it—either directly, from their current employer, or indirectly, by changing jobs. Yes, this includes tech employees. Remember, we don't all work within the Silicon Valley bubble.
- randomdata 3y agoIt seems you're confusing individuals with the general labour market. In aggregate, the workforce will adjust. The aggregate employee isn't going to put themselves in a money losing situation just to have a job. An individual might, but nobody is talking about individuals (except you).
- danaris 3y agoNo; that only works if the labor market, in aggregate, resembles an ideal free market. It does not. There are far too many constraints on people's employment and the information they have for it to be amenable to "free market theory".
- randomdata 3y agoThere is no mention or implication of there being a free market. Start a new thread if that is a subject you are interested in. Nobody in this thread is.