3 ms·
Kinda. The magnetic field is the curl of the vector potential. If the vector potential is nonzero but curl-less then you get zero magnetic field, but the partic
by bobbylarrybobby 3y ago
Kinda. The magnetic field is the curl of the vector potential. If the vector potential is nonzero but curl-less then you get zero magnetic field, but the particles’ wavefunctions still feel the vector potential.
(Specifically, the phase of the wavefunction is affected; obviously nothing observable about a single wavefunction could be affected in the absence of a field, via the correspondence principle. But when you have two electrons, that phase difference does show up in their interference pattern.)
- eternauta3k 3y agoI think I understand the Aharonov–Bohm effect for magnetism, but I don't understand how you can have the branches at different gravitational potentials without the packets experiencing a field somewhere when they branch/join.
- kurthr 3y agoI'm trying to figure out how gravity has curl?