Edit: saw the edit now, no problem, and thank you very much for engaging in good faith! I will leave the rest of my comment up, but either way, I didn't interpr

Edit: saw the edit now, no problem, and thank you very much for engaging in good faith! I will leave the rest of my comment up, but either way, I didn't interpret your comment in a negative way, just trying to get to a common understanding. If there is no other evidence of the word kamilos, rope, existing, that represents evidence that Cyril made this word up. Then, we know from the two quotes that Cyril believes that the rope interpretation is more favorable to rich people than the camel interpretation. So we have reason to believe that Cyril invented this word, and we know he thinks that the correct interpretation is softer for rich people, so it seems like a simple assumption that he invented the word to make the interpretation that's better for the rich more plausible. What other reason would he have to invent a new word that happens to support his preferred interpretation? > please record a video of yourself passing a rope in a needle's eye, and I will stand corrected. This is irrelevant. As I showed in the quote, it is indisputable that Cyril thinks that there is some small hope for a rope to pass through the eye of a needle. Why he thinks this is beyond me, but it is clearly what he believes, per his own words.