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That isn't the natural reading of the passage. The listeners express surprise when Jesus says "rich folks won't enter the kingdom of God". They then ask "well i

That isn't the natural reading of the passage. The listeners express surprise when Jesus says "rich folks won't enter the kingdom of God". They then ask "well if not the rich, then who?" indicating that they think rich folks were the most likely to get in. If not them, then who? Jesus then says "no mortal person," explaining that only God makes it possible to enter the kingdom of heaven. He doesn't say poor people. He says "nobody". The point is that there is no material means to enter heaven. Rich and poor are identical in this regard.

marcus_holmes 3y ago
Then why does he single out the rich folks? It would make more sense in your interpretation to not include the "rich" and imply that any man entering heaven was impossible.
- teach 3y ago
  Because Jesus loved using parables, a specific type of joke with a setup and a reveal that contradicts the audience's expectations.
tines 3y ago
> they then ask "well if not the rich, then who?" indicating that they think rich folks were the most likely to get in. If not them, then who? > Jesus then says "no mortal person," Except this isn't what Jesus says. He says "With man 'it' is impossible." Jesus' response doesn't even make grammatical sense as a reply to "who can be saved?" because it isn't a reply to that. The question "Who can be saved?" was posed among the listeners to themselves, not to Christ: > And they were astonished out of measure, saying among themselves, Who then can be saved? Jesus' statement "with man it is impossible" is a continuation of the thought that it is difficult for a rich man to enter the kingdom of Heaven (so hard that it requires a miracle above what's required for a normal person). It's impossible with men that a camel should pass through the eye of a needle, but with God, it's possible (and thus possible for a rich man to be saved, though not easy). It's not that there's anything good about poor people that gets them in; it's that rich people don't want in. Any interpretation that makes it as easy for rich people to enter as it is for poor people is missing the clear meaning of the words.

marcus_holmes 3y ago

Then why does he single out the rich folks? It would make more sense in your interpretation to not include the "rich" and imply that any man entering heaven was impossible.

teach 3y ago
Because Jesus loved using parables, a specific type of joke with a setup and a reveal that contradicts the audience's expectations.

tines 3y ago

> they then ask "well if not the rich, then who?" indicating that they think rich folks were the most likely to get in. If not them, then who? > Jesus then says "no mortal person," Except this isn't what Jesus says. He says "With man 'it' is impossible." Jesus' response doesn't even make grammatical sense as a reply to "who can be saved?" because it isn't a reply to that. The question "Who can be saved?" was posed among the listeners to themselves, not to Christ: > And they were astonished out of measure, saying among themselves, Who then can be saved? Jesus' statement "with man it is impossible" is a continuation of the thought that it is difficult for a rich man to enter the kingdom of Heaven (so hard that it requires a miracle above what's required for a normal person). It's impossible with men that a camel should pass through the eye of a needle, but with God, it's possible (and thus possible for a rich man to be saved, though not easy). It's not that there's anything good about poor people that gets them in; it's that rich people don't want in. Any interpretation that makes it as easy for rich people to enter as it is for poor people is missing the clear meaning of the words.