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That's possible, yes. But I think Occam's Razor tells us that it is more likely that they are victims of past harms, which is why they have become so insular.
by bradknowles 3y ago
That's possible, yes.
But I think Occam's Razor tells us that it is more likely that they are victims of past harms, which is why they have become so insular.
In the absence of more authoritative evidence from the parties in question, your guess is as good as mine.
- cxr 3y ago> Occam's Razor tells us that it is more likely that they are victims of past harms That doesn't follow. That explanation is hardly parsimonious. If anything, Occam's Razor favors an explanation like the one I gave, which is far less complex.
- bradknowles 3y agoSure, they could just be clique-ish and resistant to outside parties wanting to help. But what's the reason for that behaviour? I still think it makes a lot more sense if they have actually perceived harm from others coming in from the outside, which now explains the behaviour we see today. But as I said, without more authoritative information from the parties in question, your guess is as good as mine.
- cxr 3y agoYou don't seem to be truly open to the possibility that I have laid out. Asking "what's the reason" to try to explain something irrational is a dead end. There is no reason by definition. Taking the position that a person themselves is authoritative on matters concerning them leaves you vulnerable to an unreliable narrator.
- bradknowles 3y agoIMO, it's not an irrational behaviour on their part. It may seem irrational to us, but I believe it's much more likely to be a rational response to events that have happened in the past. We just don't know what those events were. I think that's where we differ. You see it as a purely irrational behaviour on their part that doesn't need explaining, whereas I see it as a rational response that does actually have one or more trigger events in the past.