2 ms·

Did those ideals applied to the residents in the colonies? Were “colonized” people benefiting from being equal to the French citizens in the mère patrie?

• seszett 3y ago
  Of course not, which is why I explicitly mentioned Europe. The people in the colonies (displaced slaves as well as French settlers) were very far from being equal to those in Europe, which is hardly specific to France though.
  • notjoemama 3y ago
    Someone is angry and using presentism as the basis for their criticism. Don’t take the bait. I appreciated your explanation. Thank you.
    • objektif 3y ago
      What is the bait here? That France like other barbaric colonial empires sucked the blood of millions of people around the world?
• Lamad1234 3y ago
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