2 ms·
No, as can be seen by the other comments in this thread the use of "myself" there is entirely appropriate. He is using personal pronouns consistently: "myself"
by nl 3y ago
No, as can be seen by the other comments in this thread the use of "myself" there is entirely appropriate.
He is using personal pronouns consistently: "myself" and "my children". "Their" children is the other children he is observing, and he is thinking to himself.
- emodendroket 3y agoThen again given your bizarre reading of my post how much should I really trust your interpretation.
- nl 3y agoLook up what "Freudian slip" means: https://www.healthline.com/health/freudian-slip#sexual-undertones https://www.healthline.com/health/freudian-slip#sexual-under...
- emodendroket 3y agoWhat you have linked me to is not what it means but an association many people have. It will say so on that very page if you scroll up.