In French, they only use the equivalent of the simple past tense in books, but in speech they usually only ever say the equivalent of "has done" in speech no ma

In French, they only use the equivalent of the simple past tense in books, but in speech they usually only ever say the equivalent of "has done" in speech no matter the context. I don't speak French (not as a second language nor as my native language), but this is something I've read about secondhand in textbooks and online. In Spanish, they do make a distinction in neutral speech, but it's not uncommon for someone to only ever use one or the other depending on the region they're from. The auxiliary verb form ("haber hecho" / "to have done") is more common in Spain than Latin America. Though, I don't know how much we should go into this; I feel like we've kind of derailed from the original topic.