5 ms·

I don't think MDMA is "legal or decriminalized" in the Czech Republic...? Sure, consumption of _anything_ is decriminalized here (you are allowed to possess onl

I don't think MDMA is "legal or decriminalized" in the Czech Republic...? Sure, consumption of _anything_ is decriminalized here (you are allowed to possess only a tiny amount for your own consumption) but other than that, owning, offering, selling, importing, etc. MDMA is very much criminalized here!

_heimdall 3y ago
How does that work exactly? How does one end up with a tint amount for personal consumption if someone else couldn't legally allowed to have enough to sell? Seems really strange that the government would have bothered decriminalizing consumption if the supply itself is illegal.
- polygamous_bat 3y ago
  Why is that weird? You can have food, you can make food for yourself and your friend, but if you’re selling cooked food to strangers you need to have minimum standards of cleanliness etc.
  - _heimdall 3y ago
    There are legal avenues to buy food though. My confusion is just that its illegal to sell but legal to own, it seems that still makes it functionally illegal to own since you shouldn't be able to buy it anywhere
    - Fischgericht 3y ago
      This is indeed a logic problem that exists in many countries that have partial legislation. But it still helps. It removes the stigma, but most importantly: In many countries going after substance users is a low-hanging fruit to police. Instead of solving real crimes if you raid a club you can arrest a lot of "criminals", improving your statistics. In the "war on drugs", in 99% police is going after the users, not the dealers, because the latter are far harder to catch.
- cstrahan 3y ago
  > How does that work exactly? How does one end up with a tint amount for personal consumption if someone else couldn't legally allowed to have enough to sell? Same way people acquire guns illegally in US states that prohibit gun ownership: involved parties choose to break the law. > Seems really strange that the government would have bothered decriminalizing consumption if the supply itself is illegal. These governments take the stance that drug dealers exploit the addictions/circumstances of their customers, exposing them to more harm. So they make selling (or possessing enough that an intent to sell seems probable) illegal. Because the users are at worst harming themselves (assuming they aren’t doing something like driving while intoxicated, or parenting under the influence, but there are laws that already handle these scenarios), these governments don’t see the point in further harming the users of these drugs by locking them away in prison. So drug use is legal, and possessing a small amount (so small that it would be unlikely you’re selling) is legal. Also, because the use of drugs is not illegal, this makes users more likely to seek help, whether from their community or resources provided by their government.
  - _heimdall 3y ago
    > Same way people acquire guns illegally in US states that prohibit gun ownership: involved parties choose to break the law. There are legal avenues to buy guns in the US though, that's the confusion for me. Why bother saying I can own it if the law also says no one can legally sell it to me?
    - cnasc 3y ago
      > Why bother saying I can own it if the law also says no one can legally sell it to me? The government isn’t saying “we’re totally ok with you personally taking drugs,” it’s saying “we don’t think that arresting people who have small amounts of drugs for personal consumption is a valuable use of law enforcement resources, so we’re decriminalizing personal possession and use to focus those resources on larger criminal organizations.”
Fischgericht 3y ago
"Very much criminalized" is a matter of perspective. Getting caught first-time in non-violent drug crimes in the Czech Republic means you'll end up with a minimal sentence on probation without actual jail time. In the US, your life would be ruined forever. But yeah, legal consumption without legal supply (with quality control!) does not fully solve the problem.

_heimdall 3y ago

How does that work exactly? How does one end up with a tint amount for personal consumption if someone else couldn't legally allowed to have enough to sell? Seems really strange that the government would have bothered decriminalizing consumption if the supply itself is illegal.

polygamous_bat 3y ago
Why is that weird? You can have food, you can make food for yourself and your friend, but if you’re selling cooked food to strangers you need to have minimum standards of cleanliness etc.
- _heimdall 3y ago
  There are legal avenues to buy food though. My confusion is just that its illegal to sell but legal to own, it seems that still makes it functionally illegal to own since you shouldn't be able to buy it anywhere
  - Fischgericht 3y ago
    This is indeed a logic problem that exists in many countries that have partial legislation. But it still helps. It removes the stigma, but most importantly: In many countries going after substance users is a low-hanging fruit to police. Instead of solving real crimes if you raid a club you can arrest a lot of "criminals", improving your statistics. In the "war on drugs", in 99% police is going after the users, not the dealers, because the latter are far harder to catch.
cstrahan 3y ago
> How does that work exactly? How does one end up with a tint amount for personal consumption if someone else couldn't legally allowed to have enough to sell? Same way people acquire guns illegally in US states that prohibit gun ownership: involved parties choose to break the law. > Seems really strange that the government would have bothered decriminalizing consumption if the supply itself is illegal. These governments take the stance that drug dealers exploit the addictions/circumstances of their customers, exposing them to more harm. So they make selling (or possessing enough that an intent to sell seems probable) illegal. Because the users are at worst harming themselves (assuming they aren’t doing something like driving while intoxicated, or parenting under the influence, but there are laws that already handle these scenarios), these governments don’t see the point in further harming the users of these drugs by locking them away in prison. So drug use is legal, and possessing a small amount (so small that it would be unlikely you’re selling) is legal. Also, because the use of drugs is not illegal, this makes users more likely to seek help, whether from their community or resources provided by their government.
- _heimdall 3y ago
  > Same way people acquire guns illegally in US states that prohibit gun ownership: involved parties choose to break the law. There are legal avenues to buy guns in the US though, that's the confusion for me. Why bother saying I can own it if the law also says no one can legally sell it to me?
  - cnasc 3y ago
    > Why bother saying I can own it if the law also says no one can legally sell it to me? The government isn’t saying “we’re totally ok with you personally taking drugs,” it’s saying “we don’t think that arresting people who have small amounts of drugs for personal consumption is a valuable use of law enforcement resources, so we’re decriminalizing personal possession and use to focus those resources on larger criminal organizations.”

Fischgericht 3y ago

"Very much criminalized" is a matter of perspective. Getting caught first-time in non-violent drug crimes in the Czech Republic means you'll end up with a minimal sentence on probation without actual jail time. In the US, your life would be ruined forever. But yeah, legal consumption without legal supply (with quality control!) does not fully solve the problem.