4 ms·
since when is the set of integers a finite set? Without understanding you argument more fully, I don't see how this follows at all.
by mvanveen 15y ago
since when is the set of integers a finite set? Without understanding you argument more fully, I don't see how this follows at all.
- deleted 15y ago[deleted]
- dpark 15y agoSince never. That's the opposite of what he was saying. You: Turing machines only operate on sets with the same cardinality as the set of integers. Jason: Integers are not a finite set. Jason: Therefore Turing machines cannot operate on finite sets.