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This is the same as saying Turing machines cannot operate on finite sets, which is clearly wrong.
by jasonwatkinspdx 15y ago
This is the same as saying Turing machines cannot operate on finite sets, which is clearly wrong.
- mvanveen 15y agosince when is the set of integers a finite set? Without understanding you argument more fully, I don't see how this follows at all.
- deleted 15y ago[deleted]
- dpark 15y agoSince never. That's the opposite of what he was saying. You: Turing machines only operate on sets with the same cardinality as the set of integers. Jason: Integers are not a finite set. Jason: Therefore Turing machines cannot operate on finite sets.