> The monarch is ... entitled to vote, no court would ever deny them such rights as they really derive from shared freedoms given to all UK nationals. You seem

> The monarch is ... entitled to vote, no court would ever deny them such rights as they really derive from shared freedoms given to all UK nationals. You seem to be correct that the monarch is technically not barred from voting (although they don't and shouldn't), but the Lords are not entitled to vote, so I don't think the reason you give is correct.