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IIRC, the user woud get an access token from Facebook for the target site, e.g. Vidio. Vidio then has to make sure that not only is the token actually signed by
by vladvasiliu 3y ago
IIRC, the user woud get an access token from Facebook for the target site, e.g. Vidio. Vidio then has to make sure that not only is the token actually signed by Facebook, but also that Vidio is the token's audience. The token shouldn't be opaque to Vidio.
I'm in no way an authority on OAuth, but I think the "opaque token" you're talking about is in the situation when Vidio would want to access Facebook on the user's behalf: they would get an access token for Facebook. The token can be opaque to Vidio.
- Incipient 3y agoNot being a full expert on it either, that flow is roughly right. Vidio does have to validate it. The entire pkce flow is bloody painful to implement, and it's actually quite hard to do it perfectly, and easy to accidentally skip a part of it and have it seemingly work ok.