3 ms·
Yes, unless something like the Texas Two-step divestment scheme is also available to that hypothetical entity. Then the entity which owes the debt would no long
by reaperman 3y ago
Yes, unless something like the Texas Two-step divestment scheme is also available to that hypothetical entity. Then the entity which owes the debt would no longer be the one with the revenue/assets.
- singleshot_ 3y agoI truly wish I could get a good explanation from someone wise vis a vis why this wouldn’t just be a fraudulent transfer but yes, I hear what you are saying and it seems true, assuming you get over that hurdle (which everyone with sufficient lawyers seems to be able to do).