4 ms·
No, the following would be valid (if a little pointless): fn foo(x: &'a T) -> &'a T { x }
by alexchamberlain 3y ago
No, the following would be valid (if a little pointless):
fn foo(x: &'a T) -> &'a T { x }
- sapiogram 3y agoYour example changed the type of the function, though. I'm assuming there is no `&T` in the function's output type.
- deleted 3y ago[deleted]
- alexchamberlain 3y agoOh sorry; I had misunderstood the question.