3 ms·
It does not. Time-reversal is antiunitary, so you when you apply it to p_0 = i d/dt, you pick up one -1 from i and another from d/dt, and they cancel out.
by nyssos 3y ago
It does not. Time-reversal is antiunitary, so you when you apply it to p_0 = i d/dt, you pick up one -1 from i and another from d/dt, and they cancel out.