3 ms·
Your quote from the article does not suggest what you seem to think it suggests. The Greeks definitely were able to prove the Pythagorean theorem, and the Gree
by saithound 3y ago
Your quote from the article does not suggest what you seem to think it suggests.
The Greeks definitely were able to prove the Pythagorean theorem, and the Greeks definitely though Pythagoras specifically knew how to prove it: e.g. Proclus II states this in writing explicitly, as does Euclid 300 years later, and numerous ancient sources inbetween. It would be hard for this not to be the consensus. We can't know if Pythagoras really did, simply because we have no surviving writings directly from Pythagoras - as I stated explicitly in my previous post.
- geraneum 3y agoYou are actually right. You didn’t claim that the Greek did it first and that is what I doubted in the first place. I misread your comment. That fact that the Greek could prove the theorem at some point is not unlikely even without evidence. It’s as likely as others doing it well before them.