3 ms·
If you had a set of 1000 cards, where 495 have color 0x00000000 +- x and 495 have color 0xFFFFFFFF +- x and a further 10 have color Rand(0x00000000, 0xFFFFFFFF)
by TheMagicHorsey 3y ago
If you had a set of 1000 cards, where 495 have color 0x00000000 +- x and 495 have color 0xFFFFFFFF +- x and a further 10 have color Rand(0x00000000, 0xFFFFFFFF) and you had to categorize these, if x is very small, you would probably end up with three sets ... 0, F, and some R, where the 0 set would get everything that is 0x00000000 or close to it, F set would be 0xFFFFFFFF and everything close to that, and then some R which is in the space outside those sets.
But if the vast majority of samples are in 0 and F, then it makes sense to have these as categories to study, without invalidating the fact that there is another set R which defies clean placement into either.
But pretending like 0 and F aren't categories, but rather everything is a smooth linear continuum seems silly too if x is small.
- Pabloski80 3y agoThat feels certainly right on both points. Another point of contention that perhaps shall be left out for later discussion (i might have got some preconditioned view, but perhaps would like to hear others first) is whether the third category should be considered "equal" to the 0 and F.