3 ms·
Of course it depends on the definition but none of the ones still in use consider it a prime. It's kind of hard to nail down precisely why, the best I've been
by contravariant 3y ago
Of course it depends on the definition but none of the ones still in use consider it a prime.
It's kind of hard to nail down precisely why, the best I've been able to come up with is that Z/(p) is an integral domain for all primes p (and this is roughly equivalent to the definition of a prime) but not for p=1. Furthermore if you then plough on and redefine the Z/(1) i.e. zero ring to be an integral domain it becomes a pain to construct its field of fractions.
Arguably 0 is a better prime, as it is a prime element.
- a1369209993 3y ago> none of the ones still in use consider it a prime. "has no factors other than one and itself", AFAIK, is still used by school teachers (and others) introducing the concept of prime numbers. I agree that that definition is wrong, but that wasn't the point I was making.